# |z_1|/|z_2|=|z_1/z_2| proof (algebraic)

In this post I’ll be proving to you that:

$\frac { \left| { z }_{ 1 } \right| }{ \left| { z }_{ 2 } \right| } =\left| \frac { { z }_{ 1 } }{ { z }_{ 2 } } \right|$

Firstly, I’ll say that:

${ z }_{ 1 }=x+iy,\quad \therefore \quad \left| { z }_{ 1 } \right| =\sqrt { { x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } }$

And also that:

${ z }_{ 2 }=p+iq,\quad \therefore \quad \left| { z }_{ 2 } \right| =\sqrt { { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } }$

If this is the case, then:

$\frac { { z }_{ 1 } }{ { z }_{ 2 } } =\frac { x+iy }{ p+iq } \\ \\ =\frac { \left( x+iy \right) }{ \left( p+iq \right) } \cdot \frac { \left( p-iq \right) }{ \left( p-iq \right) } \\ \\ =\frac { px-iqx+ipy-{ i }^{ 2 }qy }{ { p }^{ 2 }-ipq+ipq-{ i }^{ 2 }{ q }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ =\frac { \left( px+qy \right) +i\left( py-qx \right) }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ =\left( \frac { px+qy }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } \right) +i\left( \frac { py-qx }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } \right)$

And as this is in the form:

$z=a+ib$

I would have to conclude that:

$RHS=\left| \frac { { z }_{ 1 } }{ { z }_{ 2 } } \right| \\ \\ =\sqrt { { \left( \frac { px+qy }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } \right) }^{ 2 }+{ \left( \frac { py-qx }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } \right) }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { { \left( px+qy \right) }^{ 2 } }{ { \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { \left( py-qx \right) }^{ 2 } }{ { \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) }^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { { \left( px+qy \right) }^{ 2 }+{ \left( py-qx \right) }^{ 2 } }{ \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) ^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { { p }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+2pqxy+{ q }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }+{ p }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }-2pqxy+{ q }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 } }{ { \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) }^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { { p }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+{ p }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 } }{ { \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) }^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { \left( { x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } \right) \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) }{ \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) \left( { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } \right) } } \\ \\ =\sqrt { \frac { { x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } }{ { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\frac { \sqrt { { x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } } }{ \sqrt { { p }^{ 2 }+{ q }^{ 2 } } } \\ \\ =\frac { \left| { z }_{ 1 } \right| }{ \left| { z }_{ 2 } \right| } =LHS$

Hence, I have my proof.

# Another way to express the golden ratio mathematically

In this post I’m going to be proving that…

$\varphi =\frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+... } } }$

So, here I go…

$x=\frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }=\frac { \left( 1+\sqrt { 5 } \right) }{ 2 } \cdot \frac { \left( 1+\sqrt { 5 } \right) }{ 2 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }=\frac { 1+2\sqrt { 5 } +5 }{ 4 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }=\frac { 6+2\sqrt { 5 } }{ 4 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }-1=\frac { 6+2\sqrt { 5 } }{ 4 } -\frac { 4 }{ 4 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }-1=\frac { 2+2\sqrt { 5 } }{ 4 } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }-1=\frac { 2 }{ 2 } \cdot \frac { \left( 1+\sqrt { 5 } \right) }{ 2 }$

Wait for it…

$\Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }-1=1\cdot x\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }-1=x\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad { x }^{ 2 }=x+1\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ x } =\frac { x }{ x } +\frac { 1 }{ x } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad x=1+\frac { 1 }{ x } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ x } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ \left( 1+\frac { 1 }{ x } \right) } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ x } } \\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ \left( 1+\frac { 1 }{ x } \right) } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad \frac { 1+\sqrt { 5 } }{ 2 } =1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+\frac { 1 }{ 1+... } } }$

This expression for the golden ratio is quite common, however, before I produced this post – I think it would’ve been very hard to figure out how to derive it from scratch. There aren’t many quirky proofs like this one on the internet – I am quite certain. I hope you liked reading this post! 😀

# How to find a neat version of y when you have the equation of an ellipse

So, you have the equation of the ellipse but you need to completely isolate y. How would you go about doing this? Well, here is a fantastic example…

${ \left( \frac { x }{ a } \right) }^{ 2 }+{ \left( \frac { y }{ b } \right) }^{ 2 }=1\\ \\ \therefore \quad { \left( \frac { y }{ b } \right) }^{ 2 }=1-{ \left( \frac { x }{ a } \right) }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad \frac { { y }^{ 2 } }{ { b }^{ 2 } } =1-\frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad { y }^{ 2 }={ b }^{ 2 }-\frac { { { b }^{ 2 }x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad { y }^{ 2 }=\frac { { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } -\frac { { b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad { y }^{ 2 }=\frac { { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 }-{ b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad { y }^{ 2 }=\frac { { b }^{ 2 }\left( { a }^{ 2 }-{ x }^{ 2 } \right) }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad { y }^{ 2 }=\frac { { b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } \cdot \left( { a }^{ 2 }-{ x }^{ 2 } \right) \\ \\ \therefore \quad y=\sqrt { \frac { { b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } } \cdot \sqrt { { a }^{ 2 }-{ x }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \therefore \quad y=\frac { b }{ a } \cdot \sqrt { { a }^{ 2 }-{ x }^{ 2 } }$

This will come in handy if you’re trying to derive the area of an ellipse from absolute scratch.

# Deriving the formula for an ellipse

In this post, I’ll be demonstrating how one can derive the formula for an ellipse from absolute scratch.

To derive the formula for an ellipse, what we must first do is create a diagram like the one below.

** Click on the image above to see it in full size.

Now, the first thing we’ve got to acknowledge here is that:

${ D }_{ 1 }+{ D }_{ 2 }=2a$

What we’re basically saying is that D_1 + D_2 is equal to the length from -a to a in the diagram above.

This formula can be understood by watching the video below…

These photographs can also help the formula sink into your mind…

Ellipse Image 1:

Ellipse Image 2:

Now, look at the diagram at the top of this page once again…

What you will notice is that:

${ \left( c+x \right) }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 }={ D }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { D }_{ 1 }^{ 2 }={ c }^{ 2 }+2cx+{ x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { D }_{ 1 }=\sqrt { { c }^{ 2 }+2cx+{ x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ { \left( c-x \right) }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 }={ D }_{ 2 }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { D }_{ 2 }^{ 2 }={ c }^{ 2 }-2cx+{ x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { D }_{ 2 }=\sqrt { { c }^{ 2 }-2cx+{ x }^{ 2 }+{ y }^{ 2 } }$

If this is the case, we can say that:

** Click on the image of the workings to see it in full size.

Alright, so far so good… Now, it turns out – if you look at the diagram at the top of this page carefully, you will discover that:

${ b }^{ 2 }+{ c }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { c }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 2 }-{ b }^{ 2 }$

And this ultimately means that:

${ a }^{ 4 }+\left( { a }^{ 2 }-{ b }^{ 2 } \right) { x }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 2 }\left( { a }^{ 2 }-{ b }^{ 2 } \right) +{ a }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { a }^{ 4 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }-{ b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 4 }-{ a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }\\ \\ -{ b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }=-{ a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }\\ \\ { b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 }+{ a }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 }={ a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \frac { { b }^{ 2 }{ x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { a }^{ 2 }{ y }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 } } =\frac { { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 }{ b }^{ 2 } } \\ \\ \frac { { x }^{ 2 } }{ { a }^{ 2 } } +\frac { { y }^{ 2 } }{ { b }^{ 2 } } =1\\ \\ { \left( \frac { x }{ a } \right) }^{ 2 }+{ \left( \frac { y }{ b } \right) }^{ 2 }=1$

The formula you see just above is the formula for an ellipse. You’ve derived it from scratch!!

# Proof: Thales’ Theorem

In this post I’ll be demonstrating how you can prove that Thales’ Theorem is true. To follow the steps in this post (11 in total), what you will require is a ruler, pair of compasses and a pencil.

##### Step 11: Prove that the angle at point D is equal to 90 degrees.

Thales’ Theorem is as follows:

Because AC is the diameter of the circle you drew, the angle at the point D (α+β) must be equal to 90 degrees. In more specific and general terms, if you have the points A, C and D lying on a circle – and the line AC is in fact the diameter of this circle – then the angle at point D (α+β) must be a right angle.

Proof (which must be derived using the diagram you’ve created):

All angles within a triangle (in 2 space) must add up to 180 degrees.

Mathematically, this means that:

$\alpha +\alpha +\beta +\beta =180\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad 2\alpha +2\beta =180\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad 2\left( \alpha +\beta \right) =180\\ \\ \Rightarrow \quad \frac { 2\left( \alpha +\beta \right) }{ 2 } =\frac { 180 }{ 2 } \\ \\ \therefore \quad \alpha +\beta =90$

And as a result, Thales’ theorem must be true. The angle α+β is the angle at point D.

# 2 ways to derive Pythagoras’ equation from scratch

The other day I discovered one more way to derive Pythagoras’ equation from scratch, completely by accident. I was deriving Pythagoras’ equation using the usual method, whilst navigating  a diagram similar to the one below, but without (B-A) measurements…

*Note (regarding diagram above): x+y = 90 degrees

The usual method goes like this…

The area of the largest square is:

${ \left( A+B \right) }^{ 2 }$

It is also:

$4\cdot \frac { 1 }{ 2 } AB+{ C }^{ 2 }$

Which means that:

${ \left( A+B \right) }^{ 2 }=4\cdot \frac { 1 }{ 2 } AB+{ C }^{ 2 }\\ \\ { A }^{ 2 }+2AB+{ B }^{ 2 }=2AB+{ C }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { A }^{ 2 }+{ B }^{ 2 }={ C }^{ 2 }$

Now, when I added the lengths (B-A) to my diagram, which are included in the diagram above, I discovered a new way to derive Pythagoras’ equation…

I did this by focusing on the area C^2. It turns out that:

$4\cdot \frac { 1 }{ 2 } AB+{ \left( B-A \right) }^{ 2 }={ C }^{ 2 }$

And since:

${ \left( B-A \right) }^{ 2 }\\ \\ ={ \left( A+B \right) }^{ 2 }-4AB\\ \\ ={ A }^{ 2 }+2AB+{ B }^{ 2 }-4AB\\ \\ ={ B }^{ 2 }-2AB+{ A }^{ 2 }$

I was able to say that:

$4\cdot \frac { 1 }{ 2 } AB+\left\{ { B }^{ 2 }-2AB+{ A }^{ 2 } \right\} ={ C }^{ 2 }\\ \\ 2AB+{ B }^{ 2 }-2AB+{ A }^{ 2 }={ C }^{ 2 }\\ \\ \therefore \quad { A }^{ 2 }+{ B }^{ 2 }={ C }^{ 2 }$

Obviously, I was quite pleased. Have you discovered other ways in which to derive Pythagoras’ equation??

Related:

Video on how to come up with Pythagoras’s equation…

How To Come Up With Pythagoras’s Equation

You can now find out how to derive the 3 main cosine rule formulas through a new document that I’ve created called “Cosine Rule Mastery“.

This document can be downloaded free of charge along with “Sine Rule Mastery” which is another document that explains in detail how to come up with the sine rule formula.

I’d also like to talk about a new video I’ve created (posted below). It’s related to a 4 dimensional hypercube and learning how to train your mind to see things from different mathematical perspectives.

Prior to posting up the video above, I did create another similar video. In the video below, you will see me split a prism into 3 equal parts. This video will interest those who’d like to find the volume of a square based pyramid.

Prove that:

$\log _{ a }{ x } =\frac { \log _{ b }{ x } }{ \log _{ b }{ a } }$

Say that:

$\log _{ b }{ x } =p\\ \\ \therefore \quad { b }^{ p }=x$

And that:

$\log _{ b }{ a } =q\\ \\ \therefore \quad { b }^{ q }=a$

Therefore:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( x \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( { b }^{ p } \right) } \\ \\ =p\log _{ a }{ \left( b \right) } \\ \\ =p\cdot \frac { 1 }{ \log _{ b }{ a } } \\ \\ =\frac { \log _{ b }{ x } }{ \log _{ b }{ a } }$

# Logarithmic Proof (4)

Prove that:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( \frac { x }{ p } \right) } =\log _{ a }{ \left( x \right) } -\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) }$

Say that:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( x \right) } =m\\ \\ \therefore \quad { a }^{ m }=x$

And that:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) } =n\\ \\ \therefore \quad { a }^{ n }=p$

Therefore:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( \frac { x }{ p } \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( \frac { { a }^{ m } }{ { a }^{ n } } \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( { a }^{ \left( m-n \right) } \right) } \\ \\ =\left( m-n \right) \log _{ a }{ \left( a \right) } \\ \\ =m\log _{ a }{ \left( a \right) } -n\log _{ a }{ \left( a \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( { a }^{ m } \right) -\log _{ a }{ \left( { a }^{ n } \right) } } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( x \right) } -\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) }$

# Logarithmic Proof (3)

Prove that:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( { a }^{ n } \right) =n\log _{ a }{ (a) } }$

Say that:

${ a }^{ n }=p$

Therefore:

$\log _{ a }{ p=n }$

So:

$\log _{ a }{ \left( { a }^{ n } \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) } \\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) } \cdot 1\\ \\ =\log _{ a }{ \left( p \right) \cdot \log _{ a }{ \left( a \right) } } \\ \\ =n\cdot \log _{ a }{ \left( a \right) }$